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Respected Mufti sahab. Assalamualaiqum wa rahmatullah.
Please forgive my impoliteness.
In your fatwa (Ref. No. 1209/42-512) at point two, you highlighted a verse of Sura Imran-159 where Allah ordered Rasul (SM) to consult with His companions. But Rasul (SM) was the AMEER Or FAYSAL of that era. I heard not any era of Sahaba (Ra.) was ameerless. I didn't understand that, if a jamaat needs a ameer must, how the council system (Shura without any ameer) is jayej?
asked Nov 30, 2020 in The Holy Qur’an & Interpretation by Tahsin Ahmed Miraz

1 Answer

Ref. No. 1222/42-556

In the name of Allah the most Gracious the most Merciful

The answer to your question is as follows:

I couldn't understand what you want to know. The status of shura in Islam is also clear and so is the status of amir. We are commanded to obey amir and the Amir is instructed to resolve issues through the mutual conference of Shura.

And Allah knows best

Darul Ifta

Darul Uloom Waqf Deoband

answered Jan 3 by Darul Ifta
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